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  • March 28, 2008 at 12:45 PM #178097
    sd-maybe
    Participant

    Why can’t the bank just file a police report and have criminal charges for vandalism filed against the occupants who trash it on the way out? Not that it would be much of deterrent for people who are already dirtbags, but most borrowers even though they are in dire financial straights would not want to compound their troubles with criminal complications.

    March 28, 2008 at 2:54 PM #177738
    Anonymous
    Guest

    I would have a moral problem acting in this manner (house trashing), in addition, it’s just plain craziness.

    However, sd-maybe, I don’t see how criminal charges can be filed since technically the buyer stills “owns” the property until the foreclosure has been completed. Someone correct me if I’m wrong.

    March 28, 2008 at 2:54 PM #178093
    Anonymous
    Guest

    I would have a moral problem acting in this manner (house trashing), in addition, it’s just plain craziness.

    However, sd-maybe, I don’t see how criminal charges can be filed since technically the buyer stills “owns” the property until the foreclosure has been completed. Someone correct me if I’m wrong.

    March 28, 2008 at 2:54 PM #178096
    Anonymous
    Guest

    I would have a moral problem acting in this manner (house trashing), in addition, it’s just plain craziness.

    However, sd-maybe, I don’t see how criminal charges can be filed since technically the buyer stills “owns” the property until the foreclosure has been completed. Someone correct me if I’m wrong.

    March 28, 2008 at 2:54 PM #178105
    Anonymous
    Guest

    I would have a moral problem acting in this manner (house trashing), in addition, it’s just plain craziness.

    However, sd-maybe, I don’t see how criminal charges can be filed since technically the buyer stills “owns” the property until the foreclosure has been completed. Someone correct me if I’m wrong.

    March 28, 2008 at 2:54 PM #178193
    Anonymous
    Guest

    I would have a moral problem acting in this manner (house trashing), in addition, it’s just plain craziness.

    However, sd-maybe, I don’t see how criminal charges can be filed since technically the buyer stills “owns” the property until the foreclosure has been completed. Someone correct me if I’m wrong.

    March 28, 2008 at 3:23 PM #177748
    PadreBrian
    Participant

    Nope, the bank can still bring up charges. The paper work you sign states in so many words to no devalue the property.

    March 28, 2008 at 3:23 PM #178103
    PadreBrian
    Participant

    Nope, the bank can still bring up charges. The paper work you sign states in so many words to no devalue the property.

    March 28, 2008 at 3:23 PM #178106
    PadreBrian
    Participant

    Nope, the bank can still bring up charges. The paper work you sign states in so many words to no devalue the property.

    March 28, 2008 at 3:23 PM #178115
    PadreBrian
    Participant

    Nope, the bank can still bring up charges. The paper work you sign states in so many words to no devalue the property.

    March 28, 2008 at 3:23 PM #178203
    PadreBrian
    Participant

    Nope, the bank can still bring up charges. The paper work you sign states in so many words to no devalue the property.

    March 28, 2008 at 3:32 PM #177758
    scaredyclassic
    Participant

    Say the bank files a police report. I defend the accused. How do you prove the accused actually vandalized the home? coulda been anyone. A burglar. A squatter. A visitor to the home whilst the former homeowner ownsed. without a confession, there is no percipient witness to the vandalism. You can file all the polcie reports you want, but the fact that someone owned a house, and that the house was vandalized on or about the time of ownership, is probably insufficent to prove beyond a reaosnable doubt that the homeowner vandalized the home. and who exactly do you charge? Do you charge mom, dad, the three teenage kids. What about the five year old, do you charge her as well? Send her to juvenile hall. How will you be able to tell which spouse did the damage? And how do you even know the time the alleged vandalism took place. Maybe the house was like that when the house was purchased. or maybe it happened a long time ago and has no connection to the foreclosure. people are allowed tolive in junky houses… I’m sure there are many more defenses, but clearly, this is not an easy case to prove without a confesion. What you need to do is have the bank call the people up, say, we know what you did, and, if legal, record the homeowner’s confession. then maybe you have a case…im not giving actual legal advice, don’t take this and follow it, i’m just throwing food for thought out there…

    Drink Heavily.

    March 28, 2008 at 3:32 PM #178114
    scaredyclassic
    Participant

    Say the bank files a police report. I defend the accused. How do you prove the accused actually vandalized the home? coulda been anyone. A burglar. A squatter. A visitor to the home whilst the former homeowner ownsed. without a confession, there is no percipient witness to the vandalism. You can file all the polcie reports you want, but the fact that someone owned a house, and that the house was vandalized on or about the time of ownership, is probably insufficent to prove beyond a reaosnable doubt that the homeowner vandalized the home. and who exactly do you charge? Do you charge mom, dad, the three teenage kids. What about the five year old, do you charge her as well? Send her to juvenile hall. How will you be able to tell which spouse did the damage? And how do you even know the time the alleged vandalism took place. Maybe the house was like that when the house was purchased. or maybe it happened a long time ago and has no connection to the foreclosure. people are allowed tolive in junky houses… I’m sure there are many more defenses, but clearly, this is not an easy case to prove without a confesion. What you need to do is have the bank call the people up, say, we know what you did, and, if legal, record the homeowner’s confession. then maybe you have a case…im not giving actual legal advice, don’t take this and follow it, i’m just throwing food for thought out there…

    Drink Heavily.

    March 28, 2008 at 3:32 PM #178116
    scaredyclassic
    Participant

    Say the bank files a police report. I defend the accused. How do you prove the accused actually vandalized the home? coulda been anyone. A burglar. A squatter. A visitor to the home whilst the former homeowner ownsed. without a confession, there is no percipient witness to the vandalism. You can file all the polcie reports you want, but the fact that someone owned a house, and that the house was vandalized on or about the time of ownership, is probably insufficent to prove beyond a reaosnable doubt that the homeowner vandalized the home. and who exactly do you charge? Do you charge mom, dad, the three teenage kids. What about the five year old, do you charge her as well? Send her to juvenile hall. How will you be able to tell which spouse did the damage? And how do you even know the time the alleged vandalism took place. Maybe the house was like that when the house was purchased. or maybe it happened a long time ago and has no connection to the foreclosure. people are allowed tolive in junky houses… I’m sure there are many more defenses, but clearly, this is not an easy case to prove without a confesion. What you need to do is have the bank call the people up, say, we know what you did, and, if legal, record the homeowner’s confession. then maybe you have a case…im not giving actual legal advice, don’t take this and follow it, i’m just throwing food for thought out there…

    Drink Heavily.

    March 28, 2008 at 3:32 PM #178125
    scaredyclassic
    Participant

    Say the bank files a police report. I defend the accused. How do you prove the accused actually vandalized the home? coulda been anyone. A burglar. A squatter. A visitor to the home whilst the former homeowner ownsed. without a confession, there is no percipient witness to the vandalism. You can file all the polcie reports you want, but the fact that someone owned a house, and that the house was vandalized on or about the time of ownership, is probably insufficent to prove beyond a reaosnable doubt that the homeowner vandalized the home. and who exactly do you charge? Do you charge mom, dad, the three teenage kids. What about the five year old, do you charge her as well? Send her to juvenile hall. How will you be able to tell which spouse did the damage? And how do you even know the time the alleged vandalism took place. Maybe the house was like that when the house was purchased. or maybe it happened a long time ago and has no connection to the foreclosure. people are allowed tolive in junky houses… I’m sure there are many more defenses, but clearly, this is not an easy case to prove without a confesion. What you need to do is have the bank call the people up, say, we know what you did, and, if legal, record the homeowner’s confession. then maybe you have a case…im not giving actual legal advice, don’t take this and follow it, i’m just throwing food for thought out there…

    Drink Heavily.

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