I never saw anywhere in the article where they said he cheated. Sure, he married someone else 1 month after they were divorced, possibly for financial reasons as well as looks, but that isnt cheating. If the author could have substanciated ANY cheating, he would have.
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I’m not getting into the rest of this post, but this particular section is a pretty amazing suspension of disbelief as far as I’m concerned.
A man divorces a wife of 20+ years, and gets married to someone else less than one month afterwards. What, exactly are the odds that he WASN’T cheating on her with the woman that he eventually married – and most likely for a very extensive period of time? Whether they can prove it or not in a court of law is immaterial – the fact of the matter is that the odds are so ENORMOUSLY on the side of him cheating, and doing so for an extended period of time, that it’s a sucker bet I’d lay my entire net worth on, without a single qualm.
