‘m not sure the distinction you raised (pedophile vs homosexual pedophile) is actually used all that much, nor do I think its use would imply a link between homosexuality and pedophilia. An adjective can highlight an unusual characteristic as well as a common one. John Paul II was routinely described as the ‘Polish Pope’, not because Popes generally come from Poland, but because for several hundred years none had.
I see the distinction quite a lot in the media, although usually by terribly biased commentators and the occasional extremist politician. I think it’s something to be aware of, at the very least.
Your point regarding the Polish pope seems to prove my point. The word Polish was thrown in there because it was relevant, because it was a rare event. If you say “homosexual paedophile”, you’re using the word homosexual in that context because it’s relevant. That’s the way I see it anyway…
Your point regarding the Polish pope seems to prove my point.
If your point is that ‘homosexual’ is use as a modifier of ‘pedophile’ because it’s a rare event to have a pedophile who’s homosexual, then yes.
If your point is that ‘homosexual’ is use as a modifier of ‘pedophile’ because it’s a rare event to have a pedophile who’s homosexual, then yes.
The point I’m making is obvious and is contained within my post. It’s a valid point, regardless of whether you agree with it or not.