So if I get this right…
– Sellers put the house on the market – not disclosing it was a short sale.
– Buyers put down earnest money and went forward towards purchase.
– Sellers find out bank isn’t going to foregive the difference between sales price and money owed – and hang onto the earnest money.
And the first court ruled in favor of the dishonest sellers… but it was overturned in favor of the buyers. Is that correct?
