“In terms of simply qualifying for the loan, I don’t see how there would be any difference at all. In each case you would have to disclose the exact same information to each underwriter.”
SDR
I just meant the willingness of lenders to give them because for the first it was less risk than a higher LTV and the second was more reward for the risk. I think I recall sometimes the same lender carried both so that would definitely be about the lender wanting the money and the risk instead of PMI. Perhaps PMI underwriters would have said no way to half of these loan/borrower combinations anyway?
No need to answer the topic just got me wondering. Maybe one of the mortgage guys here knows but they aren’t always exposed to what is going on behind the scenes either.
Anyway thanks for answering. It’s not a big deal of course.
Hope you are having a good weekend.
