I should not generalize and maybe that is the problem. Too many scenarious. From what I’m seeing, there are many NODs that have taken a year to foreclose. That means a year that people have not paid their mortgage, right? I pay my rent b/c my landlord is not likely to let me live there for free for a year.
So in the situation of year-free mortgage living, the only suffering is credit. Money that was to be used for mortgage is being used for whatever, bills, bank, etc. If and when the foreclosure happens, it hurts their credit. So I’m missing where the suffering is. They lived in a nice house and gambled that they would have equity built up and when it didn’t happen, they lived their for free for a year and now,{gasp} rent (oh the horror and suffering). Credit can be repaired in a few years.
Investors purchasing multiple properties and renting out have suffered how? They stopped paying their mortgage on their properties while still collecting rents. From what I’m seeing, banks seem to be foreclosing a little sooner on investors. Seems like about 6 to 8 months.
Maybe you can enlighten me on the suffering. I am sure I’m missing something.
Some banks did not make bad loans. Others were notorious for it. Countrywide got taken over by BA which had taxpayer help, right? And the guy from Countrywide made out like a bandit and from what I understand, started another company.
No. I believe suffering has been minimal.
Edit: I add, as I said before, relative to the loans that were made.
