since they’ve provided a 1/8th interest, how does that affect the sale if they get it sold? Does the escrow need to forward the 1/8th proceeds to the bankrupt entity? Why not just provide a 1% interest?
Second thought, is the loan an original purchase loan? If not and the lender has recourse, I would think they’re legal department would stomp all over it to squash the behavior in the general public.
