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(former)FormerSanDiegan
ParticipantThat’s pretty funny Josh it’s SDR.
(former)FormerSanDiegan
ParticipantThat’s pretty funny Josh it’s SDR.
(former)FormerSanDiegan
ParticipantThat’s pretty funny Josh it’s SDR.
(former)FormerSanDiegan
Participant12% bonus
4% raise
(former)FormerSanDiegan
Participant12% bonus
4% raise
(former)FormerSanDiegan
Participant12% bonus
4% raise
(former)FormerSanDiegan
Participanthipmatt – He did not recommend foreign stocks. He recommended liquid (e.g. money market or short-term bond ) foreign holdings. Not stocks.
but housing went ridiculously high(in 2003 I too thought it was insane)
I think the rise in the Euro is ridiculously insane.
(former)FormerSanDiegan
Participanthipmatt – He did not recommend foreign stocks. He recommended liquid (e.g. money market or short-term bond ) foreign holdings. Not stocks.
but housing went ridiculously high(in 2003 I too thought it was insane)
I think the rise in the Euro is ridiculously insane.
(former)FormerSanDiegan
Participanthipmatt – He did not recommend foreign stocks. He recommended liquid (e.g. money market or short-term bond ) foreign holdings. Not stocks.
but housing went ridiculously high(in 2003 I too thought it was insane)
I think the rise in the Euro is ridiculously insane.
August 14, 2007 at 4:42 PM in reply to: Please explain the excitement about foreclosure auctions? #75225(former)FormerSanDiegan
ParticipantIf the loan was an original purchase loan, the lender has no recourse and cannot obtain a deficiency judgement. So, in those cases there is no redemption period opportunity for the borrower.
If there is a judicial foreclosure then there must be a judgment against the former owner. I suppose this would show up in public records at least.
Since I’ve never taken foreclosure purchases seriously, I don’t know how to determine at auction whether a particular property is a judicial foreclosure or not. Maybe someone else knows.
August 14, 2007 at 4:42 PM in reply to: Please explain the excitement about foreclosure auctions? #75342(former)FormerSanDiegan
ParticipantIf the loan was an original purchase loan, the lender has no recourse and cannot obtain a deficiency judgement. So, in those cases there is no redemption period opportunity for the borrower.
If there is a judicial foreclosure then there must be a judgment against the former owner. I suppose this would show up in public records at least.
Since I’ve never taken foreclosure purchases seriously, I don’t know how to determine at auction whether a particular property is a judicial foreclosure or not. Maybe someone else knows.
August 14, 2007 at 4:42 PM in reply to: Please explain the excitement about foreclosure auctions? #75347(former)FormerSanDiegan
ParticipantIf the loan was an original purchase loan, the lender has no recourse and cannot obtain a deficiency judgement. So, in those cases there is no redemption period opportunity for the borrower.
If there is a judicial foreclosure then there must be a judgment against the former owner. I suppose this would show up in public records at least.
Since I’ve never taken foreclosure purchases seriously, I don’t know how to determine at auction whether a particular property is a judicial foreclosure or not. Maybe someone else knows.
August 14, 2007 at 4:06 PM in reply to: Please explain the excitement about foreclosure auctions? #75186(former)FormerSanDiegan
Participant365-day redemption only applied to judicial foreclosures. These are cases where the lender goes to court to obtain a deficiency judgment. This is rare in CA.
I wouldn’t lose any sleep over this element of buying a foreclosure. There’s a lot more to be afraid of, such as buying too early in the down-cycle, undisclosed issues with the property, etc.
Below is the explanation according to RealtyTrac:
“Court foreclosures only occur if a lender desires a deficiency judgment. This process gives a borrower up to one year to redeem the property after the foreclosure sale.
In almost all cases, foreclosures are handled out of court. The process begins when a lender files a notice of default with the county recorder identifying the default amount and the date the borrower must pay off the default. The notice is mailed to the borrower and other affected parties.
Up to five business days before the trustee’s sale, the borrower may pay off the default plus any applicable costs of foreclosure and stop the foreclosure process. Three months after the notice of default is filed, the lender can schedule a trustee’s sale of the property.”
http://www.realtytrac.com/foreclosure_laws.asp?strState=California
August 14, 2007 at 4:06 PM in reply to: Please explain the excitement about foreclosure auctions? #75305(former)FormerSanDiegan
Participant365-day redemption only applied to judicial foreclosures. These are cases where the lender goes to court to obtain a deficiency judgment. This is rare in CA.
I wouldn’t lose any sleep over this element of buying a foreclosure. There’s a lot more to be afraid of, such as buying too early in the down-cycle, undisclosed issues with the property, etc.
Below is the explanation according to RealtyTrac:
“Court foreclosures only occur if a lender desires a deficiency judgment. This process gives a borrower up to one year to redeem the property after the foreclosure sale.
In almost all cases, foreclosures are handled out of court. The process begins when a lender files a notice of default with the county recorder identifying the default amount and the date the borrower must pay off the default. The notice is mailed to the borrower and other affected parties.
Up to five business days before the trustee’s sale, the borrower may pay off the default plus any applicable costs of foreclosure and stop the foreclosure process. Three months after the notice of default is filed, the lender can schedule a trustee’s sale of the property.”
http://www.realtytrac.com/foreclosure_laws.asp?strState=California
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