Home › Forums › Financial Markets/Economics › Has Goldman fatally damaged their Franchise?
- This topic has 680 replies, 15 voices, and was last updated 14 years, 7 months ago by scaredyclassic.
-
AuthorPosts
-
April 19, 2010 at 3:05 PM #541634April 19, 2010 at 3:53 PM #540742SK in CVParticipant
[quote=Allan from Fallbrook]SK: Except, in this instance, that is not how collateral works. In this instance, Goldman was well within their rights to step in and seize the collateral and not have to wait in line. [/quote]
Can you give a quick explanation on this? Thinking it through, it makes sense that the collateral wouldn’t be the impaired assets, but I don’t understand how counter-parties to the contract would have anything other than an uncollateralized obligation. What assets exactly would they be asserting their ownership? They certainly didn’t have the right to sieze the TARP money.
April 19, 2010 at 3:53 PM #540857SK in CVParticipant[quote=Allan from Fallbrook]SK: Except, in this instance, that is not how collateral works. In this instance, Goldman was well within their rights to step in and seize the collateral and not have to wait in line. [/quote]
Can you give a quick explanation on this? Thinking it through, it makes sense that the collateral wouldn’t be the impaired assets, but I don’t understand how counter-parties to the contract would have anything other than an uncollateralized obligation. What assets exactly would they be asserting their ownership? They certainly didn’t have the right to sieze the TARP money.
April 19, 2010 at 3:53 PM #541313SK in CVParticipant[quote=Allan from Fallbrook]SK: Except, in this instance, that is not how collateral works. In this instance, Goldman was well within their rights to step in and seize the collateral and not have to wait in line. [/quote]
Can you give a quick explanation on this? Thinking it through, it makes sense that the collateral wouldn’t be the impaired assets, but I don’t understand how counter-parties to the contract would have anything other than an uncollateralized obligation. What assets exactly would they be asserting their ownership? They certainly didn’t have the right to sieze the TARP money.
April 19, 2010 at 3:53 PM #541401SK in CVParticipant[quote=Allan from Fallbrook]SK: Except, in this instance, that is not how collateral works. In this instance, Goldman was well within their rights to step in and seize the collateral and not have to wait in line. [/quote]
Can you give a quick explanation on this? Thinking it through, it makes sense that the collateral wouldn’t be the impaired assets, but I don’t understand how counter-parties to the contract would have anything other than an uncollateralized obligation. What assets exactly would they be asserting their ownership? They certainly didn’t have the right to sieze the TARP money.
April 19, 2010 at 3:53 PM #541666SK in CVParticipant[quote=Allan from Fallbrook]SK: Except, in this instance, that is not how collateral works. In this instance, Goldman was well within their rights to step in and seize the collateral and not have to wait in line. [/quote]
Can you give a quick explanation on this? Thinking it through, it makes sense that the collateral wouldn’t be the impaired assets, but I don’t understand how counter-parties to the contract would have anything other than an uncollateralized obligation. What assets exactly would they be asserting their ownership? They certainly didn’t have the right to sieze the TARP money.
April 19, 2010 at 4:25 PM #540747Allan from FallbrookParticipant[quote=SK in CV]
Can you give a quick explanation on this? Thinking it through, it makes sense that the collateral wouldn’t be the impaired assets, but I don’t understand how counter-parties to the contract would have anything other than an uncollateralized obligation. What assets exactly would they be asserting their ownership? They certainly didn’t have the right to sieze the TARP money.[/quote]SK: Sure. As was explained to me from my buddy, the former Bear alum, Goldman had zero counterparty exposure to AIG, in spite of the $12.9Bn they were paid through TARP.
The reason for this is two-fold: Nearly $11Bn of the AIG position was collateralized through cash and securities that Goldman already held (on behalf of AIG). Further, the remaining $2Bn (approx) was insured through credit default swaps (CDS), so, even if AIG collapsed, the insurance would cover the balance. Simply put, if they hadn’t been paid through TARP, Goldman would have just retained the “collateral” they were already holding as security to cover the majority of the position and then collected the insurance for the balance.
So, your understanding and mine regarding “collateral” is largely driven by the commercial definition of the word, which differs nearly completely from “collateral” in this instance.
Much has been made of the Goldman Sachs “payoff” from TARP, but the truth is not nearly as exciting. Again, not to say they’re not a bunch of shitty sleazebags, just not in this instance. Speaking of Taibbi: Yeah, I did read the Rolling Stone article, but it was riven with factual inaccuracies. I understand the need to sell copy, but Taibbi is too willing (IMHO) to veer off into the fanciful or reckless to make his point.
April 19, 2010 at 4:25 PM #540862Allan from FallbrookParticipant[quote=SK in CV]
Can you give a quick explanation on this? Thinking it through, it makes sense that the collateral wouldn’t be the impaired assets, but I don’t understand how counter-parties to the contract would have anything other than an uncollateralized obligation. What assets exactly would they be asserting their ownership? They certainly didn’t have the right to sieze the TARP money.[/quote]SK: Sure. As was explained to me from my buddy, the former Bear alum, Goldman had zero counterparty exposure to AIG, in spite of the $12.9Bn they were paid through TARP.
The reason for this is two-fold: Nearly $11Bn of the AIG position was collateralized through cash and securities that Goldman already held (on behalf of AIG). Further, the remaining $2Bn (approx) was insured through credit default swaps (CDS), so, even if AIG collapsed, the insurance would cover the balance. Simply put, if they hadn’t been paid through TARP, Goldman would have just retained the “collateral” they were already holding as security to cover the majority of the position and then collected the insurance for the balance.
So, your understanding and mine regarding “collateral” is largely driven by the commercial definition of the word, which differs nearly completely from “collateral” in this instance.
Much has been made of the Goldman Sachs “payoff” from TARP, but the truth is not nearly as exciting. Again, not to say they’re not a bunch of shitty sleazebags, just not in this instance. Speaking of Taibbi: Yeah, I did read the Rolling Stone article, but it was riven with factual inaccuracies. I understand the need to sell copy, but Taibbi is too willing (IMHO) to veer off into the fanciful or reckless to make his point.
April 19, 2010 at 4:25 PM #541318Allan from FallbrookParticipant[quote=SK in CV]
Can you give a quick explanation on this? Thinking it through, it makes sense that the collateral wouldn’t be the impaired assets, but I don’t understand how counter-parties to the contract would have anything other than an uncollateralized obligation. What assets exactly would they be asserting their ownership? They certainly didn’t have the right to sieze the TARP money.[/quote]SK: Sure. As was explained to me from my buddy, the former Bear alum, Goldman had zero counterparty exposure to AIG, in spite of the $12.9Bn they were paid through TARP.
The reason for this is two-fold: Nearly $11Bn of the AIG position was collateralized through cash and securities that Goldman already held (on behalf of AIG). Further, the remaining $2Bn (approx) was insured through credit default swaps (CDS), so, even if AIG collapsed, the insurance would cover the balance. Simply put, if they hadn’t been paid through TARP, Goldman would have just retained the “collateral” they were already holding as security to cover the majority of the position and then collected the insurance for the balance.
So, your understanding and mine regarding “collateral” is largely driven by the commercial definition of the word, which differs nearly completely from “collateral” in this instance.
Much has been made of the Goldman Sachs “payoff” from TARP, but the truth is not nearly as exciting. Again, not to say they’re not a bunch of shitty sleazebags, just not in this instance. Speaking of Taibbi: Yeah, I did read the Rolling Stone article, but it was riven with factual inaccuracies. I understand the need to sell copy, but Taibbi is too willing (IMHO) to veer off into the fanciful or reckless to make his point.
April 19, 2010 at 4:25 PM #541406Allan from FallbrookParticipant[quote=SK in CV]
Can you give a quick explanation on this? Thinking it through, it makes sense that the collateral wouldn’t be the impaired assets, but I don’t understand how counter-parties to the contract would have anything other than an uncollateralized obligation. What assets exactly would they be asserting their ownership? They certainly didn’t have the right to sieze the TARP money.[/quote]SK: Sure. As was explained to me from my buddy, the former Bear alum, Goldman had zero counterparty exposure to AIG, in spite of the $12.9Bn they were paid through TARP.
The reason for this is two-fold: Nearly $11Bn of the AIG position was collateralized through cash and securities that Goldman already held (on behalf of AIG). Further, the remaining $2Bn (approx) was insured through credit default swaps (CDS), so, even if AIG collapsed, the insurance would cover the balance. Simply put, if they hadn’t been paid through TARP, Goldman would have just retained the “collateral” they were already holding as security to cover the majority of the position and then collected the insurance for the balance.
So, your understanding and mine regarding “collateral” is largely driven by the commercial definition of the word, which differs nearly completely from “collateral” in this instance.
Much has been made of the Goldman Sachs “payoff” from TARP, but the truth is not nearly as exciting. Again, not to say they’re not a bunch of shitty sleazebags, just not in this instance. Speaking of Taibbi: Yeah, I did read the Rolling Stone article, but it was riven with factual inaccuracies. I understand the need to sell copy, but Taibbi is too willing (IMHO) to veer off into the fanciful or reckless to make his point.
April 19, 2010 at 4:25 PM #541670Allan from FallbrookParticipant[quote=SK in CV]
Can you give a quick explanation on this? Thinking it through, it makes sense that the collateral wouldn’t be the impaired assets, but I don’t understand how counter-parties to the contract would have anything other than an uncollateralized obligation. What assets exactly would they be asserting their ownership? They certainly didn’t have the right to sieze the TARP money.[/quote]SK: Sure. As was explained to me from my buddy, the former Bear alum, Goldman had zero counterparty exposure to AIG, in spite of the $12.9Bn they were paid through TARP.
The reason for this is two-fold: Nearly $11Bn of the AIG position was collateralized through cash and securities that Goldman already held (on behalf of AIG). Further, the remaining $2Bn (approx) was insured through credit default swaps (CDS), so, even if AIG collapsed, the insurance would cover the balance. Simply put, if they hadn’t been paid through TARP, Goldman would have just retained the “collateral” they were already holding as security to cover the majority of the position and then collected the insurance for the balance.
So, your understanding and mine regarding “collateral” is largely driven by the commercial definition of the word, which differs nearly completely from “collateral” in this instance.
Much has been made of the Goldman Sachs “payoff” from TARP, but the truth is not nearly as exciting. Again, not to say they’re not a bunch of shitty sleazebags, just not in this instance. Speaking of Taibbi: Yeah, I did read the Rolling Stone article, but it was riven with factual inaccuracies. I understand the need to sell copy, but Taibbi is too willing (IMHO) to veer off into the fanciful or reckless to make his point.
April 20, 2010 at 7:29 AM #540858ArrayaParticipanthttp://www.oftwominds.com/blogapr10/vampire-squid-piranhas04-10.html
Vampire Squid, Meet Ravenous Piranhas, 4/19/10.
There is even a slight chance that the Democratic leadership prompted this precise timing to light a fire under reluctant Republican senators to pass some sort of gutted, weak, sure-to-be-unenforced “financial reform.” Once again, for purposes of political theatre, it is important for the Democrats to pass a simulacrum “reform” of Wall Street to appease the frightfully hot public anger at the craven obedience of the political class to the whims and wishes of the big banks and Wall Street.
Meanwhile, as the Republicans claim to have their fingers on “the pulse of Middle America,” their Wall Street-soiled fingers are actually clasped on the cold wrist of the corpse of their own credibility. Resisting bank/financial reform, even a watered-down version, will eviscerate what little credibility the Repubs have left after lording over the destruction of the U.S. economy and their despicable rewarding of Wall Street for eight dreadful years (2001-2008).
In other words, both parties desperately need some political theatre to mask their enslavement to Wall Street and the big banks. This SEC action fits the bill very nicely, along with calling a few incredibly wealthy former CEOs up to Congress for a public flaying.April 20, 2010 at 7:29 AM #540976ArrayaParticipanthttp://www.oftwominds.com/blogapr10/vampire-squid-piranhas04-10.html
Vampire Squid, Meet Ravenous Piranhas, 4/19/10.
There is even a slight chance that the Democratic leadership prompted this precise timing to light a fire under reluctant Republican senators to pass some sort of gutted, weak, sure-to-be-unenforced “financial reform.” Once again, for purposes of political theatre, it is important for the Democrats to pass a simulacrum “reform” of Wall Street to appease the frightfully hot public anger at the craven obedience of the political class to the whims and wishes of the big banks and Wall Street.
Meanwhile, as the Republicans claim to have their fingers on “the pulse of Middle America,” their Wall Street-soiled fingers are actually clasped on the cold wrist of the corpse of their own credibility. Resisting bank/financial reform, even a watered-down version, will eviscerate what little credibility the Repubs have left after lording over the destruction of the U.S. economy and their despicable rewarding of Wall Street for eight dreadful years (2001-2008).
In other words, both parties desperately need some political theatre to mask their enslavement to Wall Street and the big banks. This SEC action fits the bill very nicely, along with calling a few incredibly wealthy former CEOs up to Congress for a public flaying.April 20, 2010 at 7:29 AM #541427ArrayaParticipanthttp://www.oftwominds.com/blogapr10/vampire-squid-piranhas04-10.html
Vampire Squid, Meet Ravenous Piranhas, 4/19/10.
There is even a slight chance that the Democratic leadership prompted this precise timing to light a fire under reluctant Republican senators to pass some sort of gutted, weak, sure-to-be-unenforced “financial reform.” Once again, for purposes of political theatre, it is important for the Democrats to pass a simulacrum “reform” of Wall Street to appease the frightfully hot public anger at the craven obedience of the political class to the whims and wishes of the big banks and Wall Street.
Meanwhile, as the Republicans claim to have their fingers on “the pulse of Middle America,” their Wall Street-soiled fingers are actually clasped on the cold wrist of the corpse of their own credibility. Resisting bank/financial reform, even a watered-down version, will eviscerate what little credibility the Repubs have left after lording over the destruction of the U.S. economy and their despicable rewarding of Wall Street for eight dreadful years (2001-2008).
In other words, both parties desperately need some political theatre to mask their enslavement to Wall Street and the big banks. This SEC action fits the bill very nicely, along with calling a few incredibly wealthy former CEOs up to Congress for a public flaying.April 20, 2010 at 7:29 AM #541517ArrayaParticipanthttp://www.oftwominds.com/blogapr10/vampire-squid-piranhas04-10.html
Vampire Squid, Meet Ravenous Piranhas, 4/19/10.
There is even a slight chance that the Democratic leadership prompted this precise timing to light a fire under reluctant Republican senators to pass some sort of gutted, weak, sure-to-be-unenforced “financial reform.” Once again, for purposes of political theatre, it is important for the Democrats to pass a simulacrum “reform” of Wall Street to appease the frightfully hot public anger at the craven obedience of the political class to the whims and wishes of the big banks and Wall Street.
Meanwhile, as the Republicans claim to have their fingers on “the pulse of Middle America,” their Wall Street-soiled fingers are actually clasped on the cold wrist of the corpse of their own credibility. Resisting bank/financial reform, even a watered-down version, will eviscerate what little credibility the Repubs have left after lording over the destruction of the U.S. economy and their despicable rewarding of Wall Street for eight dreadful years (2001-2008).
In other words, both parties desperately need some political theatre to mask their enslavement to Wall Street and the big banks. This SEC action fits the bill very nicely, along with calling a few incredibly wealthy former CEOs up to Congress for a public flaying. -
AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.