Well the $100K equity is my number and I believe conservative . . .
Anyway, why would the holder of the 2nd come after him assuming they are made whole at the 1st’s sale on 8/15? That may be a large assumption, but again let’s assume that for the sake of my education. So let me restate my question: “If” the 2nd holder is made whole at the 1st’s sale, why would they still go after my stupid brother?
