I never thought that in the course of a two related threads I would find two real estate professionals resorting to rape analogies. Is there a reason for this? There are a lot of other analogies out there from which to choose. Maybe urbanrealtor could give us some statistics on the likelihood that this coincidence is random.
Also, I’m not so sure that “a pair” is so terribly necessary to answering your questions. As for me, I haven’t claimed to have purchased without an agent, although I am considering it with respect to our next home purchase.
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I think the rape analogy stems from the fact that I sometimes feel like a slinger in an episode of the wire. And no, I don’t think that you have to have testicles to respond. I was being facetious (perhaps rather roughly).
I do think though that this thread is generally a lovely conjectural nugget and not something borne out by actual experience.
Give me a zip code or area to work with.
I would like to look at it and see what the actual data says.
If it turns out that exclusive agent representation (where each agent represents one side exclusively) does not actually add valued (which is the essential argument in this thread) then I would like to know.
I have a vested interest in knowing one way or the other.
