- This topic has 140 replies, 8 voices, and was last updated 14 years, 9 months ago by davelj.
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February 13, 2010 at 12:01 PM #513707February 13, 2010 at 12:08 PM #512798daveljParticipant
[quote=Arraya]
As a result, OneWest appears to simply ignore the intent and just foreclose (as far as I can tell).
So, OneWest’s failure to modify loans may actually amount to fraud on the Treasury and US taxpayers.
[/quote]Let’s see… I’m supposed to take seriously a legal analysis that (1) misidentifies the primary parties to the transaction (What do the Treasury and the taxpayers have to do with the loss-share arrangements?), and (2) includes the caveat “as far as I can tell” (which tends not to hold up well in court).
I suspect that by the time a “real” analysis is performed on this issue at the micro level, neither OneWest, the FDIC nor their detractors will be covered in glory.
February 13, 2010 at 12:08 PM #512946daveljParticipant[quote=Arraya]
As a result, OneWest appears to simply ignore the intent and just foreclose (as far as I can tell).
So, OneWest’s failure to modify loans may actually amount to fraud on the Treasury and US taxpayers.
[/quote]Let’s see… I’m supposed to take seriously a legal analysis that (1) misidentifies the primary parties to the transaction (What do the Treasury and the taxpayers have to do with the loss-share arrangements?), and (2) includes the caveat “as far as I can tell” (which tends not to hold up well in court).
I suspect that by the time a “real” analysis is performed on this issue at the micro level, neither OneWest, the FDIC nor their detractors will be covered in glory.
February 13, 2010 at 12:08 PM #513366daveljParticipant[quote=Arraya]
As a result, OneWest appears to simply ignore the intent and just foreclose (as far as I can tell).
So, OneWest’s failure to modify loans may actually amount to fraud on the Treasury and US taxpayers.
[/quote]Let’s see… I’m supposed to take seriously a legal analysis that (1) misidentifies the primary parties to the transaction (What do the Treasury and the taxpayers have to do with the loss-share arrangements?), and (2) includes the caveat “as far as I can tell” (which tends not to hold up well in court).
I suspect that by the time a “real” analysis is performed on this issue at the micro level, neither OneWest, the FDIC nor their detractors will be covered in glory.
February 13, 2010 at 12:08 PM #513459daveljParticipant[quote=Arraya]
As a result, OneWest appears to simply ignore the intent and just foreclose (as far as I can tell).
So, OneWest’s failure to modify loans may actually amount to fraud on the Treasury and US taxpayers.
[/quote]Let’s see… I’m supposed to take seriously a legal analysis that (1) misidentifies the primary parties to the transaction (What do the Treasury and the taxpayers have to do with the loss-share arrangements?), and (2) includes the caveat “as far as I can tell” (which tends not to hold up well in court).
I suspect that by the time a “real” analysis is performed on this issue at the micro level, neither OneWest, the FDIC nor their detractors will be covered in glory.
February 13, 2010 at 12:08 PM #513712daveljParticipant[quote=Arraya]
As a result, OneWest appears to simply ignore the intent and just foreclose (as far as I can tell).
So, OneWest’s failure to modify loans may actually amount to fraud on the Treasury and US taxpayers.
[/quote]Let’s see… I’m supposed to take seriously a legal analysis that (1) misidentifies the primary parties to the transaction (What do the Treasury and the taxpayers have to do with the loss-share arrangements?), and (2) includes the caveat “as far as I can tell” (which tends not to hold up well in court).
I suspect that by the time a “real” analysis is performed on this issue at the micro level, neither OneWest, the FDIC nor their detractors will be covered in glory.
February 13, 2010 at 12:11 PM #512803ArrayaParticipant[quote=davelj][quote=Arraya]
As a result, OneWest appears to simply ignore the intent and just foreclose (as far as I can tell).
So, OneWest’s failure to modify loans may actually amount to fraud on the Treasury and US taxpayers.
[/quote]Let’s see… I’m supposed to take seriously a legal analysis that (1) misidentifies the primary parties to the transaction (What do the Treasury and the taxpayers have to do with the loss-share arrangements?), and (2) includes the caveat “as far as I can tell” (which tends not to hold up well in court).
I suspect that by the time a “real” analysis is performed on this issue at the micro level, neither OneWest, the FDIC nor their detractors will be covered in glory.[/quote]
That’s a good question Dave.
Why don’t you tell us why One west is acting differently from other banks?
Or is this all contrived paranoia of the financially retarded.
Why is one west not doing modifications?
February 13, 2010 at 12:11 PM #512951ArrayaParticipant[quote=davelj][quote=Arraya]
As a result, OneWest appears to simply ignore the intent and just foreclose (as far as I can tell).
So, OneWest’s failure to modify loans may actually amount to fraud on the Treasury and US taxpayers.
[/quote]Let’s see… I’m supposed to take seriously a legal analysis that (1) misidentifies the primary parties to the transaction (What do the Treasury and the taxpayers have to do with the loss-share arrangements?), and (2) includes the caveat “as far as I can tell” (which tends not to hold up well in court).
I suspect that by the time a “real” analysis is performed on this issue at the micro level, neither OneWest, the FDIC nor their detractors will be covered in glory.[/quote]
That’s a good question Dave.
Why don’t you tell us why One west is acting differently from other banks?
Or is this all contrived paranoia of the financially retarded.
Why is one west not doing modifications?
February 13, 2010 at 12:11 PM #513371ArrayaParticipant[quote=davelj][quote=Arraya]
As a result, OneWest appears to simply ignore the intent and just foreclose (as far as I can tell).
So, OneWest’s failure to modify loans may actually amount to fraud on the Treasury and US taxpayers.
[/quote]Let’s see… I’m supposed to take seriously a legal analysis that (1) misidentifies the primary parties to the transaction (What do the Treasury and the taxpayers have to do with the loss-share arrangements?), and (2) includes the caveat “as far as I can tell” (which tends not to hold up well in court).
I suspect that by the time a “real” analysis is performed on this issue at the micro level, neither OneWest, the FDIC nor their detractors will be covered in glory.[/quote]
That’s a good question Dave.
Why don’t you tell us why One west is acting differently from other banks?
Or is this all contrived paranoia of the financially retarded.
Why is one west not doing modifications?
February 13, 2010 at 12:11 PM #513464ArrayaParticipant[quote=davelj][quote=Arraya]
As a result, OneWest appears to simply ignore the intent and just foreclose (as far as I can tell).
So, OneWest’s failure to modify loans may actually amount to fraud on the Treasury and US taxpayers.
[/quote]Let’s see… I’m supposed to take seriously a legal analysis that (1) misidentifies the primary parties to the transaction (What do the Treasury and the taxpayers have to do with the loss-share arrangements?), and (2) includes the caveat “as far as I can tell” (which tends not to hold up well in court).
I suspect that by the time a “real” analysis is performed on this issue at the micro level, neither OneWest, the FDIC nor their detractors will be covered in glory.[/quote]
That’s a good question Dave.
Why don’t you tell us why One west is acting differently from other banks?
Or is this all contrived paranoia of the financially retarded.
Why is one west not doing modifications?
February 13, 2010 at 12:11 PM #513717ArrayaParticipant[quote=davelj][quote=Arraya]
As a result, OneWest appears to simply ignore the intent and just foreclose (as far as I can tell).
So, OneWest’s failure to modify loans may actually amount to fraud on the Treasury and US taxpayers.
[/quote]Let’s see… I’m supposed to take seriously a legal analysis that (1) misidentifies the primary parties to the transaction (What do the Treasury and the taxpayers have to do with the loss-share arrangements?), and (2) includes the caveat “as far as I can tell” (which tends not to hold up well in court).
I suspect that by the time a “real” analysis is performed on this issue at the micro level, neither OneWest, the FDIC nor their detractors will be covered in glory.[/quote]
That’s a good question Dave.
Why don’t you tell us why One west is acting differently from other banks?
Or is this all contrived paranoia of the financially retarded.
Why is one west not doing modifications?
February 13, 2010 at 12:13 PM #512808air_ogiParticipantAnd this is why you don’t believe everything you read on the Internet.
The loss sharing agreement covers the whole portfolio, not individual assets.
It goes like this:OWB buys the portfolio at 70c on the dollar.
It takes first 20% of loss on the written down value of the porfolio. FDIC shares the rest.I don’t see why this is so difficult to understand.
And Soros’ hedgefund is a minority shareholder in this. You don’t mention that Saudi Arabia is one of largest owners of Fox News every time you quote their article.
February 13, 2010 at 12:13 PM #512956air_ogiParticipantAnd this is why you don’t believe everything you read on the Internet.
The loss sharing agreement covers the whole portfolio, not individual assets.
It goes like this:OWB buys the portfolio at 70c on the dollar.
It takes first 20% of loss on the written down value of the porfolio. FDIC shares the rest.I don’t see why this is so difficult to understand.
And Soros’ hedgefund is a minority shareholder in this. You don’t mention that Saudi Arabia is one of largest owners of Fox News every time you quote their article.
February 13, 2010 at 12:13 PM #513376air_ogiParticipantAnd this is why you don’t believe everything you read on the Internet.
The loss sharing agreement covers the whole portfolio, not individual assets.
It goes like this:OWB buys the portfolio at 70c on the dollar.
It takes first 20% of loss on the written down value of the porfolio. FDIC shares the rest.I don’t see why this is so difficult to understand.
And Soros’ hedgefund is a minority shareholder in this. You don’t mention that Saudi Arabia is one of largest owners of Fox News every time you quote their article.
February 13, 2010 at 12:13 PM #513469air_ogiParticipantAnd this is why you don’t believe everything you read on the Internet.
The loss sharing agreement covers the whole portfolio, not individual assets.
It goes like this:OWB buys the portfolio at 70c on the dollar.
It takes first 20% of loss on the written down value of the porfolio. FDIC shares the rest.I don’t see why this is so difficult to understand.
And Soros’ hedgefund is a minority shareholder in this. You don’t mention that Saudi Arabia is one of largest owners of Fox News every time you quote their article.
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