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sdgrrl.
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September 27, 2009 at 7:02 AM #461489September 27, 2009 at 10:08 AM #461723
ybitz
ParticipantWhat if your property was “under-water” (you owe more mortgage on it than it’s worth) when the government exercises eminent domain on your house? As far as I know, the government only has to pay the fair market share. Would you get slapped with a bill from the bank? Or would the bank just have to eat the difference for a non-recourse loan? I wonder if this has ever happened before.
September 27, 2009 at 10:08 AM #462345ybitz
ParticipantWhat if your property was “under-water” (you owe more mortgage on it than it’s worth) when the government exercises eminent domain on your house? As far as I know, the government only has to pay the fair market share. Would you get slapped with a bill from the bank? Or would the bank just have to eat the difference for a non-recourse loan? I wonder if this has ever happened before.
September 27, 2009 at 10:08 AM #461528ybitz
ParticipantWhat if your property was “under-water” (you owe more mortgage on it than it’s worth) when the government exercises eminent domain on your house? As far as I know, the government only has to pay the fair market share. Would you get slapped with a bill from the bank? Or would the bank just have to eat the difference for a non-recourse loan? I wonder if this has ever happened before.
September 27, 2009 at 10:08 AM #462140ybitz
ParticipantWhat if your property was “under-water” (you owe more mortgage on it than it’s worth) when the government exercises eminent domain on your house? As far as I know, the government only has to pay the fair market share. Would you get slapped with a bill from the bank? Or would the bank just have to eat the difference for a non-recourse loan? I wonder if this has ever happened before.
September 27, 2009 at 10:08 AM #462068ybitz
ParticipantWhat if your property was “under-water” (you owe more mortgage on it than it’s worth) when the government exercises eminent domain on your house? As far as I know, the government only has to pay the fair market share. Would you get slapped with a bill from the bank? Or would the bank just have to eat the difference for a non-recourse loan? I wonder if this has ever happened before.
September 27, 2009 at 4:02 PM #462175sdgrrl
Participant[quote=ybitz]What if your property was “under-water” (you owe more mortgage on it than it’s worth) when the government exercises eminent domain on your house? As far as I know, the government only has to pay the fair market share. Would you get slapped with a bill from the bank? Or would the bank just have to eat the difference for a non-recourse loan? I wonder if this has ever happened before.[/quote]
I would love to hear the answer on this also!
September 27, 2009 at 4:02 PM #462101sdgrrl
Participant[quote=ybitz]What if your property was “under-water” (you owe more mortgage on it than it’s worth) when the government exercises eminent domain on your house? As far as I know, the government only has to pay the fair market share. Would you get slapped with a bill from the bank? Or would the bank just have to eat the difference for a non-recourse loan? I wonder if this has ever happened before.[/quote]
I would love to hear the answer on this also!
September 27, 2009 at 4:02 PM #461564sdgrrl
Participant[quote=ybitz]What if your property was “under-water” (you owe more mortgage on it than it’s worth) when the government exercises eminent domain on your house? As far as I know, the government only has to pay the fair market share. Would you get slapped with a bill from the bank? Or would the bank just have to eat the difference for a non-recourse loan? I wonder if this has ever happened before.[/quote]
I would love to hear the answer on this also!
September 27, 2009 at 4:02 PM #461757sdgrrl
Participant[quote=ybitz]What if your property was “under-water” (you owe more mortgage on it than it’s worth) when the government exercises eminent domain on your house? As far as I know, the government only has to pay the fair market share. Would you get slapped with a bill from the bank? Or would the bank just have to eat the difference for a non-recourse loan? I wonder if this has ever happened before.[/quote]
I would love to hear the answer on this also!
September 27, 2009 at 4:02 PM #462380sdgrrl
Participant[quote=ybitz]What if your property was “under-water” (you owe more mortgage on it than it’s worth) when the government exercises eminent domain on your house? As far as I know, the government only has to pay the fair market share. Would you get slapped with a bill from the bank? Or would the bank just have to eat the difference for a non-recourse loan? I wonder if this has ever happened before.[/quote]
I would love to hear the answer on this also!
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