- This topic has 185 replies, 20 voices, and was last updated 13 years, 4 months ago by ltokuda.
-
AuthorPosts
-
April 9, 2008 at 2:23 PM #183827April 9, 2008 at 2:39 PM #183795(former)FormerSanDieganParticipant
First of all, I don’t think there is anything to justify a permanently higher plateau. But I do have a couple observations.
1. Like the tax changes in the 70’s mentioned above there was a significant tax change in 1997 for personal residences. The change is the capital gains tax exclusion on the first 250K (or 500K if married) on the sale of a primary residence.
Over the long term, this could effectively makes a primary residence a little more attractive over the long run, if everything else were equal. I would expect this to raise the ratio slightly (maybe by 5 or 10%) not the 60% increase shown.2. The ratio of an asset price compared to income or rent derived from it can be interest-rate sensitive. For example, one might be happy to pay $100,000 to buy a property that rents at say $1000 per month when bonds or alternative investments are in the 5% range. However, if alternative investments are paying 15%, it doesn’t look so hot. After a long-period of declining interest rates from early 1980s until now I would expect some upward bias in the valuation on your chart. Going forward, I think the trend will at best be flat rates and perhaps significantly higher rates, so this would not help the higher plateau theory.
April 9, 2008 at 2:39 PM #183811(former)FormerSanDieganParticipantFirst of all, I don’t think there is anything to justify a permanently higher plateau. But I do have a couple observations.
1. Like the tax changes in the 70’s mentioned above there was a significant tax change in 1997 for personal residences. The change is the capital gains tax exclusion on the first 250K (or 500K if married) on the sale of a primary residence.
Over the long term, this could effectively makes a primary residence a little more attractive over the long run, if everything else were equal. I would expect this to raise the ratio slightly (maybe by 5 or 10%) not the 60% increase shown.2. The ratio of an asset price compared to income or rent derived from it can be interest-rate sensitive. For example, one might be happy to pay $100,000 to buy a property that rents at say $1000 per month when bonds or alternative investments are in the 5% range. However, if alternative investments are paying 15%, it doesn’t look so hot. After a long-period of declining interest rates from early 1980s until now I would expect some upward bias in the valuation on your chart. Going forward, I think the trend will at best be flat rates and perhaps significantly higher rates, so this would not help the higher plateau theory.
April 9, 2008 at 2:39 PM #183838(former)FormerSanDieganParticipantFirst of all, I don’t think there is anything to justify a permanently higher plateau. But I do have a couple observations.
1. Like the tax changes in the 70’s mentioned above there was a significant tax change in 1997 for personal residences. The change is the capital gains tax exclusion on the first 250K (or 500K if married) on the sale of a primary residence.
Over the long term, this could effectively makes a primary residence a little more attractive over the long run, if everything else were equal. I would expect this to raise the ratio slightly (maybe by 5 or 10%) not the 60% increase shown.2. The ratio of an asset price compared to income or rent derived from it can be interest-rate sensitive. For example, one might be happy to pay $100,000 to buy a property that rents at say $1000 per month when bonds or alternative investments are in the 5% range. However, if alternative investments are paying 15%, it doesn’t look so hot. After a long-period of declining interest rates from early 1980s until now I would expect some upward bias in the valuation on your chart. Going forward, I think the trend will at best be flat rates and perhaps significantly higher rates, so this would not help the higher plateau theory.
April 9, 2008 at 2:39 PM #183846(former)FormerSanDieganParticipantFirst of all, I don’t think there is anything to justify a permanently higher plateau. But I do have a couple observations.
1. Like the tax changes in the 70’s mentioned above there was a significant tax change in 1997 for personal residences. The change is the capital gains tax exclusion on the first 250K (or 500K if married) on the sale of a primary residence.
Over the long term, this could effectively makes a primary residence a little more attractive over the long run, if everything else were equal. I would expect this to raise the ratio slightly (maybe by 5 or 10%) not the 60% increase shown.2. The ratio of an asset price compared to income or rent derived from it can be interest-rate sensitive. For example, one might be happy to pay $100,000 to buy a property that rents at say $1000 per month when bonds or alternative investments are in the 5% range. However, if alternative investments are paying 15%, it doesn’t look so hot. After a long-period of declining interest rates from early 1980s until now I would expect some upward bias in the valuation on your chart. Going forward, I think the trend will at best be flat rates and perhaps significantly higher rates, so this would not help the higher plateau theory.
April 9, 2008 at 2:39 PM #183852(former)FormerSanDieganParticipantFirst of all, I don’t think there is anything to justify a permanently higher plateau. But I do have a couple observations.
1. Like the tax changes in the 70’s mentioned above there was a significant tax change in 1997 for personal residences. The change is the capital gains tax exclusion on the first 250K (or 500K if married) on the sale of a primary residence.
Over the long term, this could effectively makes a primary residence a little more attractive over the long run, if everything else were equal. I would expect this to raise the ratio slightly (maybe by 5 or 10%) not the 60% increase shown.2. The ratio of an asset price compared to income or rent derived from it can be interest-rate sensitive. For example, one might be happy to pay $100,000 to buy a property that rents at say $1000 per month when bonds or alternative investments are in the 5% range. However, if alternative investments are paying 15%, it doesn’t look so hot. After a long-period of declining interest rates from early 1980s until now I would expect some upward bias in the valuation on your chart. Going forward, I think the trend will at best be flat rates and perhaps significantly higher rates, so this would not help the higher plateau theory.
April 9, 2008 at 4:59 PM #183887Ash HousewaresParticipantThis question stems out of FSD’s post; I was wondering what the method for calculating a GRM is for a given interest rate.
Using the 5% example of FSD above, I reason a GRM of 240 (which seems high) is justified:
annual rent = 5% of price
–>
12*monthly rent = price * 0.05
–>
12/0.05 = price/monthly rent = 240Is that how people come up with their “rule of thumb” GRM numbers for screening properties?
April 9, 2008 at 4:59 PM #183899Ash HousewaresParticipantThis question stems out of FSD’s post; I was wondering what the method for calculating a GRM is for a given interest rate.
Using the 5% example of FSD above, I reason a GRM of 240 (which seems high) is justified:
annual rent = 5% of price
–>
12*monthly rent = price * 0.05
–>
12/0.05 = price/monthly rent = 240Is that how people come up with their “rule of thumb” GRM numbers for screening properties?
April 9, 2008 at 4:59 PM #183928Ash HousewaresParticipantThis question stems out of FSD’s post; I was wondering what the method for calculating a GRM is for a given interest rate.
Using the 5% example of FSD above, I reason a GRM of 240 (which seems high) is justified:
annual rent = 5% of price
–>
12*monthly rent = price * 0.05
–>
12/0.05 = price/monthly rent = 240Is that how people come up with their “rule of thumb” GRM numbers for screening properties?
April 9, 2008 at 4:59 PM #183934Ash HousewaresParticipantThis question stems out of FSD’s post; I was wondering what the method for calculating a GRM is for a given interest rate.
Using the 5% example of FSD above, I reason a GRM of 240 (which seems high) is justified:
annual rent = 5% of price
–>
12*monthly rent = price * 0.05
–>
12/0.05 = price/monthly rent = 240Is that how people come up with their “rule of thumb” GRM numbers for screening properties?
April 9, 2008 at 4:59 PM #183940Ash HousewaresParticipantThis question stems out of FSD’s post; I was wondering what the method for calculating a GRM is for a given interest rate.
Using the 5% example of FSD above, I reason a GRM of 240 (which seems high) is justified:
annual rent = 5% of price
–>
12*monthly rent = price * 0.05
–>
12/0.05 = price/monthly rent = 240Is that how people come up with their “rule of thumb” GRM numbers for screening properties?
April 9, 2008 at 5:02 PM #183890jpinpbParticipantFormerSD – Good point about the capital gains tax
April 9, 2008 at 5:02 PM #183904jpinpbParticipantFormerSD – Good point about the capital gains tax
April 9, 2008 at 5:02 PM #183933jpinpbParticipantFormerSD – Good point about the capital gains tax
April 9, 2008 at 5:02 PM #183941jpinpbParticipantFormerSD – Good point about the capital gains tax
-
AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.