Eviction

[northparkbuyer]

I am following a property in North Park/92104. The non-residing owner was renting to her tenant/daughter, but the owner died about a year ago, and the daughter has never took over making the mortgage payments. NOD was filed in late 2009.

The house went on the block today according to usa-foreclosure.com (says “awaiting sale result” right now).

Will this just be a typical renting tenant eviction? Or does the fact that the tenant was related to the owner change things? Also, after the auction, is there a difference in the subsequent foreclosure process if a private party bought the place vs. a revert to bank situation?

[bearishgurl]

Was the Notice of Sale made out to the estate of the decedent or the name of the “tenant” or (potential) “heir(s)?” If it was made out to the name of the heir(s), is it one or multiple heirs?

In other words, who is being foreclosed upon?

[bearishgurl]

Was the Notice of Sale made out to the estate of the decedent or the name of the “tenant” or (potential) “heir(s)?” If it was made out to the name of the heir(s), is it one or multiple heirs?

In other words, who is being foreclosed upon?

[bearishgurl]

Was the Notice of Sale made out to the estate of the decedent or the name of the “tenant” or (potential) “heir(s)?” If it was made out to the name of the heir(s), is it one or multiple heirs?

In other words, who is being foreclosed upon?

[bearishgurl]

Was the Notice of Sale made out to the estate of the decedent or the name of the “tenant” or (potential) “heir(s)?” If it was made out to the name of the heir(s), is it one or multiple heirs?

In other words, who is being foreclosed upon?

[bearishgurl]

Was the Notice of Sale made out to the estate of the decedent or the name of the “tenant” or (potential) “heir(s)?” If it was made out to the name of the heir(s), is it one or multiple heirs?

In other words, who is being foreclosed upon?

[northparkbuyer]

Notice of trustee sale was sent to the decedent at her last address. Which I thought was weird.

[northparkbuyer]

Notice of trustee sale was sent to the decedent at her last address. Which I thought was weird.

[northparkbuyer]

Notice of trustee sale was sent to the decedent at her last address. Which I thought was weird.

[northparkbuyer]

Notice of trustee sale was sent to the decedent at her last address. Which I thought was weird.

[northparkbuyer]

Notice of trustee sale was sent to the decedent at her last address. Which I thought was weird.

[bearishgurl]

If the owner has been dead a year and title was never passed to any heirs, then it is likely the owner died without a joint tenant on title or a will or trust. It is likely the daughter/tenant did not pay the mortgage because a clear title was never passed to him/her and his/her siblings because the owner died intestate. Perhaps there was not enough $$ and/or too much debt in the estate which would have eaten all the equity of that property so no one opened probate. It’s also possible that none of the potential heirs had the capacity to pay the mortgage or the decedent borrowed more on the property then it was worth so they declined to. The person you see living was probably just trying to live for “free” as long as possible until the lender took it back.

If that property is/was sold to a private party on the steps, that party has the right to extend a written lease to the occupant or evict them, whichever they prefer. If the lender takes the property back, it has the same rights but will most likely evict the tenant and market the property because there is a shortage of SFR’s in that zip code for sale.

Do you know what the opening bid was at the trustees sales and whether it was a first or second TD foreclosing?

[bearishgurl]

If the owner has been dead a year and title was never passed to any heirs, then it is likely the owner died without a joint tenant on title or a will or trust. It is likely the daughter/tenant did not pay the mortgage because a clear title was never passed to him/her and his/her siblings because the owner died intestate. Perhaps there was not enough $$ and/or too much debt in the estate which would have eaten all the equity of that property so no one opened probate. It’s also possible that none of the potential heirs had the capacity to pay the mortgage or the decedent borrowed more on the property then it was worth so they declined to. The person you see living was probably just trying to live for “free” as long as possible until the lender took it back.

If that property is/was sold to a private party on the steps, that party has the right to extend a written lease to the occupant or evict them, whichever they prefer. If the lender takes the property back, it has the same rights but will most likely evict the tenant and market the property because there is a shortage of SFR’s in that zip code for sale.

Do you know what the opening bid was at the trustees sales and whether it was a first or second TD foreclosing?

[bearishgurl]

If the owner has been dead a year and title was never passed to any heirs, then it is likely the owner died without a joint tenant on title or a will or trust. It is likely the daughter/tenant did not pay the mortgage because a clear title was never passed to him/her and his/her siblings because the owner died intestate. Perhaps there was not enough $$ and/or too much debt in the estate which would have eaten all the equity of that property so no one opened probate. It’s also possible that none of the potential heirs had the capacity to pay the mortgage or the decedent borrowed more on the property then it was worth so they declined to. The person you see living was probably just trying to live for “free” as long as possible until the lender took it back.

If that property is/was sold to a private party on the steps, that party has the right to extend a written lease to the occupant or evict them, whichever they prefer. If the lender takes the property back, it has the same rights but will most likely evict the tenant and market the property because there is a shortage of SFR’s in that zip code for sale.

Do you know what the opening bid was at the trustees sales and whether it was a first or second TD foreclosing?

[bearishgurl]

If the owner has been dead a year and title was never passed to any heirs, then it is likely the owner died without a joint tenant on title or a will or trust. It is likely the daughter/tenant did not pay the mortgage because a clear title was never passed to him/her and his/her siblings because the owner died intestate. Perhaps there was not enough $$ and/or too much debt in the estate which would have eaten all the equity of that property so no one opened probate. It’s also possible that none of the potential heirs had the capacity to pay the mortgage or the decedent borrowed more on the property then it was worth so they declined to. The person you see living was probably just trying to live for “free” as long as possible until the lender took it back.

If that property is/was sold to a private party on the steps, that party has the right to extend a written lease to the occupant or evict them, whichever they prefer. If the lender takes the property back, it has the same rights but will most likely evict the tenant and market the property because there is a shortage of SFR’s in that zip code for sale.

Do you know what the opening bid was at the trustees sales and whether it was a first or second TD foreclosing?

[Author]

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