If you are a cash buyer, with little to no credit history, you are faced with no deduction on property tax, an important deciding factor in this market. Is it not possible for a lender to agree to a mortgage based on a captial sum (equal to or larger than the property value) as collateral, which in turn is invested by the lender to pay the mortgage? Wouldn’t a lender be able to give you a decent enough mortgage rate, and a more or less equal return on capital to pay the mortgage so you qualify for the tax deductible?
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