Thank you for the clarification. Next question: Wouldn’t the second also foreclose? I guess I’m assuming if someone doesn’t pay on the 1st and the bank forecloses on the 1st, then I would think the people aren’t paying on the 2nd either. So if the 2nd is foreclosing, then if you’re on the steps, you’ll be on the hook for both, providing payments haven’t been made on either and both are being foreclosed? How does that work? What if someone else bids on the 2nd?
