If the loan was an original purchase loan, the lender has no recourse and cannot obtain a deficiency judgement. So, in those cases there is no redemption period opportunity for the borrower.
If there is a judicial foreclosure then there must be a judgment against the former owner. I suppose this would show up in public records at least.
Since I’ve never taken foreclosure purchases seriously, I don’t know how to determine at auction whether a particular property is a judicial foreclosure or not. Maybe someone else knows.
