So, the first point is that incomes are actually nominally higher in the US (not lower) AND purchasing power extends that further.
A previous post showed UK median income as higher than the US. How is the median higher than the per capita income ? Please provide a source. If the median is indeed higher it means that there must be much fewer people in the workforce in the UK as a percentage of the population than in the US.
Fewer % of workers pulling the weight means more social programmes, and the associated higher tax burden.