The fund invests at least 80% of its managed assets in preferred securities, and up to 20% of its net assets in debt securities, including convertible debt securities and convertible preferred securities. The fund invests predominantly in securities that are rated investment grade (BBB/Baa or better by S&P, Moody’s, or Fitch) at the time of investment, and may include up to 10% in securities that are rated investment grade by at least one of S&P, Moody’s, or Fitch, and lower by another. The fund uses leverage.
It appears the month(s) it lost 80% of value correlates with the time frame of the highest amount of foreclosures all over the nation.
Could it be that the fund invested in subprime mortgages and/or residential mortgage-backed securities that were worthless? If so, does it still invest in residential mortgages today?
This merits further research. I don’t know if the “recommender” was invested in the fund in 2009 but is happy with it now.