Could you explain this further – for “they” to be better off financially in ten years by not paying off their mortgage, would they have to be in the later years of their mortgage, as in the example being discussed?
I am asking because I have a hard time analyzing when it is better to take on or pay off debt.
Doesn’t the analysis of whether one is better off paying off debt or not have to take into account what use the capital will be put to if it isn’t used to pay off the debt?
I’m sure your right, but I don’t understand how to calculate – what the analysis is for seeing that
one “pays off” a huge chunk of a loan via currency debasement alone.
I understand the concept of opportunity cost…but it seems like you are saying the relationship between the loan and inflation alone are enough in the equation.
(Obviously I don’t have the hang of commenting yet, I meant to direct this question at Rich’s comment, above.)
