contraman, not paying any taxes on the gain on sale of the properties, and transferring all the monies over to your 410k plan, is perfectly justified as long as your 401k plan was the legal owner of the properties.
How did your 401k take tax deductions on the interest and other expenses of property ownership before you sold? And how did you get a bank to lend money to your 401k to buy it in the first place?
I am fascinated by the idea that every wealthy person in the US is doing this, whatever THIS is.
