Anyone please correct me if I’m wrong, but I wouldn’t think a direct correlation between number of sales and price should exist without bringing supply into the equation.
For example, over the last 50 years the price of gasoline has dropped (when adjusted for inflation) even though the sale of gasoline has increased greatly. This is due to more production, more competition, etc. However, small adjustments to the supply available creates large adjustments to the price. Changes in price will eventually create some adjustments to sales.
