sdr, in a declining market, I agree with you. Price @ 0 DOM would most likely be higher than price @ 100 DOM. However, if it was an appreciating market like it was 2-3 years ago, wouldn’t price @ 100 DOM be higher than price @ 0 DOM? So, in an up market, if you priced a $700k house @ $750k, no one will touch it @ day 1. But 100 days later, if price appreciated past $750k, all of a sudden, to buyers at the time, $750k would be a deal and they would snatch it up. Maybe I’m just talking nonsense, but i swear that make sense to me :-).