The reason that is a pertinent question is because what you said does not make sense.
If the appraisal was done by the bank that owned the home, why would they price it below the appraisal in the first place? In fact, they would not put the home on the market until an appraisal was done. Why would they put the home on the market and then get an appraisal done afterwards?
Now if the appraisal was done by the buyer, that appraisal belongs to the buyer and is never delivered to the seller unless the buyer authorizes it. Generally buyers do not send a copy of the appraisal to the seller UNLESS the appraisal comes in low. If the appraisal comes in high then no buyer will ever send it to the seller. It makes no sense correct?
Anyways I am sure there is a logical explanation in there somewhere.
