Since it’s Sunday, let me stir the pot a bit. 😉
Why should the borrower take ownership for the loss of value?
Does he not have a RIGHT to walk away as outlined in his note?
Edit: Added sample note.
“the Note which this Mortgage secures is a non-recourse Note and such Note shall be enforced against Mortgagor only to the extent of Mortgagor’s interest in the Premises as described herein”
