Thanks for your response to the OP and generally for your contributions to the board.
Could you please explain why you “assume it to be true” when an agent says they have multiple offers?
I just got a counter on a property that has similar listing characteristics as the OP’s property — on market since March; expired (or, more likely, pulled) and re-listed; house vacant. Multiple offers are claimed.
This same agent, in an original counter, actually put in the what I believe to be the illegal under RESPA requirement that we qualify with a designated mortgage broker of the seller’s choice.
Given that prior move (which we rejected out-of-hand, of course)I have no reason to believe that the agent is above lying about counter-offers. Why should I think otherwise?