Civil Unions

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Submitted by carlislematthew on November 18, 2006 - 8:27am

I have a question for the conservatives on this board, and I ask the question seriously and respectfully of your views.

If you have an issue with gay people being able to get married (which I realize does not cover all conservatives), is that due to using the word "marriage"? If instead gay people could have "civil unions", would that be OK with you, as long as marriage was kept between a man and a woman?

I would define a civil union as something recognized at the federal level and equal to marriage in everything (taxes, inheritance, etc) but name.

I don't want to start a flame war, or have anyone call anyone else names. I'm just interested in opinions on this matter, and I respect everyone's views (unless you're mean of course!).

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'm not sure the distinction
Submitted by carlislematthew on November 28, 2006 - 8:05am.

'm not sure the distinction you raised (pedophile vs homosexual pedophile) is actually used all that much, nor do I think its use would imply a link between homosexuality and pedophilia. An adjective can highlight an unusual characteristic as well as a common one. John Paul II was routinely described as the 'Polish Pope', not because Popes generally come from Poland, but because for several hundred years none had.

I see the distinction quite a lot in the media, although usually by terribly biased commentators and the occasional extremist politician. I think it's something to be aware of, at the very least.

Your point regarding the Polish pope seems to prove my point. The word Polish was thrown in there because it was relevant, because it was a rare event. If you say "homosexual paedophile", you're using the word homosexual in that context because it's relevant. That's the way I see it anyway...

Your point regarding the
Submitted by bgates on November 28, 2006 - 10:10am.

Your point regarding the Polish pope seems to prove my point.

If your point is that 'homosexual' is use as a modifier of 'pedophile' because it's a rare event to have a pedophile who's homosexual, then yes.

If your point is that
Submitted by carlislematthew on November 29, 2006 - 8:36am.

If your point is that 'homosexual' is use as a modifier of 'pedophile' because it's a rare event to have a pedophile who's homosexual, then yes.

The point I'm making is obvious and is contained within my post. It's a valid point, regardless of whether you agree with it or not.

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